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Quantificand's avatar

I'm having trouble seeing how assuming that each seller has a private value of 0 differs from assuming that the market is for lemons.

It seems like the main point of Akerlof's paper is that asymmetric information makes us lose a ton of net-beneficial transactions, particularly those where someone who values their car above 0 sells it to someone who values it more (note that this might just be a more complicated way of saying someone bought a "plum", depending on the intended definition). I don't think he seeks to deny that you might be able to buy a good car at an estate sale or whatever where the seller has 0 private value (though I haven't looked at his math very closely). It seems like you and he establish basically the same stuff. Maybe I am missing something.

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Peter Angel's avatar

Respectfully,

This seems too smart by half, and probably wrong even though I'm not precisely sure why

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